Bernd
11/15/2019 (Fri) 12:48:03
No.32127
del
11/15/2019 (Fri) 12:48:03
No.32127
del
>>32101
I'm talking about the historicity of some events and conditions in interwar and wartime Europe. Whatever happened or didn't happened in America does not change the historicity of those other realities. I'm not even making a moral judgement but merely showing facts. Perhaps you're trying to make a moral equivalence, but that's not what I'm trying to show you.
There is an objective definition for slave labor and the usage of several categories of foreign labor by Germany fits it. Therefore there was slave labor in Germany. What about America? If what America does or did fits the definition, then both Germany and America practiced slave labor.
And what is slave labor with high mortality? That is also objective. It is slave labor with a lot of death. That took place in Germany. What if America also did it? Then it took place in Germany and America.
Apartheid objectively describes the nature of the Polish decrees. Was that good? That's up to you.
Your claim that the entirety of foreign workers in Germany were there voluntarily is simply false.
Your claim that they were well treated is also incorrect. That topic was quite complex, which you can read here.
So is your claim that their wages were at a German level.
The size and luxuries of apartments afforded by common workers in the American industrial heartland were wildly out of reach of the income of their German counterparts.
The housing programmes of either Weimar or the Reich fell short of their objectives.
For the same price as common radio models in Germany, Americans could buy radios of much higher quality and had a higher rate of radio usage. This is despite radios being the most successful consumer goods campaign of the regime.
This holds true for other household appliances: their accessibility was lower in Germany than in some other countries.
Most German peasants were overworked, owned little land and had difficult lives.
Rural conditions, access to consumer goods and housing are objective metrics of material living standards. In all of them Germany was behind. Hence it by far did not have the world's highest material standard of living.
Those are all realities. Dispute their historicity if you want.
I'm talking about the historicity of some events and conditions in interwar and wartime Europe. Whatever happened or didn't happened in America does not change the historicity of those other realities. I'm not even making a moral judgement but merely showing facts. Perhaps you're trying to make a moral equivalence, but that's not what I'm trying to show you.
There is an objective definition for slave labor and the usage of several categories of foreign labor by Germany fits it. Therefore there was slave labor in Germany. What about America? If what America does or did fits the definition, then both Germany and America practiced slave labor.
And what is slave labor with high mortality? That is also objective. It is slave labor with a lot of death. That took place in Germany. What if America also did it? Then it took place in Germany and America.
Apartheid objectively describes the nature of the Polish decrees. Was that good? That's up to you.
Your claim that the entirety of foreign workers in Germany were there voluntarily is simply false.
Your claim that they were well treated is also incorrect. That topic was quite complex, which you can read here.
So is your claim that their wages were at a German level.
The size and luxuries of apartments afforded by common workers in the American industrial heartland were wildly out of reach of the income of their German counterparts.
The housing programmes of either Weimar or the Reich fell short of their objectives.
For the same price as common radio models in Germany, Americans could buy radios of much higher quality and had a higher rate of radio usage. This is despite radios being the most successful consumer goods campaign of the regime.
This holds true for other household appliances: their accessibility was lower in Germany than in some other countries.
Most German peasants were overworked, owned little land and had difficult lives.
Rural conditions, access to consumer goods and housing are objective metrics of material living standards. In all of them Germany was behind. Hence it by far did not have the world's highest material standard of living.
Those are all realities. Dispute their historicity if you want.